Originally posted by DOHCPower
I understand what youre showing me, but i just dont buy it. I looked at the BMW engine page and it states the airflow, but it doesnt say WHEN that peak airflow is acheived. I have no doubts in my mind modern F1 engines reach VE's above 100%, i just dont beleieve this happens in the 13k-19k range.
My guess is theyre running somewhere around a 49mm stroke. I would expect peak tq to occur somewhere in the neighborhood of 12k. But since HP wins races, every effort is made to keep the TQ from falling off to drastically and for the HP #'s to climb towards oblivion, putting the declining TQ to faster and faster, *ahem* work.
OK, lets consider you AND BMW are correct, and we consider that the engine uses 1995 cubic metres per hour at just below 13000rpm. This gives a volumetric efficiency of 170%. I imagine this to be highly improbable. Peak torque occurs somethere around 15000 - 17000rpm depending on whose engine it is.
I don't think anyone has run a stroke around 49mm in an F1 V10 for a long time (possibly not since the 3 litre capacity limit was introduced). I'd say 25m/s would be a sensible piston speed for peak power. Lets imagine peak power at 18500rpm. This would give a stroke of 40.5mm
97mm bore x 40.59mm stroke for a V10 gives the correct displacement and is in the region most publications put current F1 bore sizes at.
The graph was very nice to illustrate your point. I don't know what your point is though, other than your assertion that the faster the torque drops off, the faster power climbs. Could you explain to me the portion just before peak torque where, with increasing engine speed, power is falling? These parts of the graph would seem to contradict my (albeit basic) understanding of engines and some of the laws of physics (and the Ferrari graph).