I don't like to defend Wikipedia very often, as its editorial standards - at least where motorsport and especially Formula 1 is concerned - can be a strange combination of mercurial and pedantic but, to give that community some credit, they do make the distinction between the pre-1981 World Championship of Drivers/International Cup for F1 Constructors, and the current Formula 1 World Championship. It's even mentioned in the second paragraph of the 1981 season article: https://en.wikipedia...ld_Championship
I think Ensign said it best in that it's more a question of semiotics than one of history. Yes, there are fundamental differences between the current championship and the 1950-80 one, but in many ways 1981 was much the same as 1980: Williams, Brabham, Ferrari and all the rest competed; Alan Jones carried the number 1 in recognition of his position as reigning world champion, even if the championship of which he was the winner no longer existed; Grands Prix were run at tracks like Buenos Aires, Zolder and Hockenheim to much the same distance as they had before; there was a maximum engine capacity of 3 litres naturally aspirated or 1.5 litres turbocharged et cetera, et cetera...
While I think the pre-1981 history of Grand Prix racing tends to be very poorly understood even among people who take an interest in the subject (especially those who, like myself, grew up watching Formula 1 in the Mosley and Todt eras), I think it's a bit much to suggest that there's a conspiracy or anything of the sort to suppress any knowledge of the old championship. The true facts are there in plain sight even on Wikipedia, a place I would never recommend for anything beyond bare introductory reading. Although there is indeed a tendency for oversimplification which can be infuriating at times for those who know better (a recent promotional video for the Monaco Grand Prix strongly implied that the first race in the Principality was in 1950 ), in the case of the 1950/1981 distinction I think it is justified to some extent.
As for the ACF/FFSA question, was that not at its core a mere transition of power? DSJ says this in the August 1968 edition of Motor Sport:
"After the upheaval in French motoring circles last winter, when the F.F.S.A. took control of the sport from the A.C.F., a statement was issued that there would not be a further Grand Prix de l'A.C.F., which many people took to mean that there would be no French Grand Prix, but later the F.F.S.A. put out a notice that they would be running the first Grand Prix de France. So 1968 saw the end of the oldest Grand Prix race in history, the G.P. de l'A.C.F., and the start of the youngest, the Grand Prix of France. For those not interested in definitions and organisations all this was of little importance, for the previous races have always been referred to as the French Grand Prix, and the new title is translated into English with the same words. It is really a case of a change of government and title, but the established event remains the same."
Can we not, to use another Orwellian analogy, apply "doublethink" and acknowledge these changes while still treating them as a continuation of what preceded them?
Edited by AByrne27, 25 June 2018 - 19:23.